392 is what percent of 1676 - step by step solution

Simple and best practice solution for 392 is what percent of 1676. Check how easy it is, and learn it for the future. Our solution is simple, and easy to understand, so don`t hesitate to use it as a solution of your homework.

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To get the solution, we are looking for, we need to point out what we know.

1. We assume, that the number 1676 is 100% - because it's the output value of the task.
2. We assume, that x is the value we are looking for.
3. If 100% equals 1676, so we can write it down as 100%=1676.
4. We know, that x% equals 392 of the output value, so we can write it down as x%=392.
5. Now we have two simple equations:
1) 100%=1676
2) x%=392
where left sides of both of them have the same units, and both right sides have the same units, so we can do something like that:
100%/x%=1676/392
6. Now we just have to solve the simple equation, and we will get the solution we are looking for.

7. Solution for 392 is what percent of 1676

100%/x%=1676/392
(100/x)*x=(1676/392)*x       - we multiply both sides of the equation by x
100=4.2755102040816*x       - we divide both sides of the equation by (4.2755102040816) to get x
100/4.2755102040816=x
23.389021479714=x
x=23.389021479714

now we have:
392 is 23.389021479714% of 1676

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